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soc.culture.jewish FAQ: Worship, Conversion, Intermarriage (5/12) |
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as designs on sweaters (men's and women's) may cause shaatnez
problems. The padding filler in many suits is made of assorted rags
which may be mixed linen and wool in themselves (so it is not just a
worry of linen threaded padding in a wool shell suit).
Nowadays, the usual way of observing the Shaatnez prohibitions is to
first check the fabric list (careful: lana/lino is Spanish for
wool/linen). If the fabric list shows a forbidden mixture, don't
bother, you probably can't get it fixed. If the label shows "other" it
may or may not be linen. Even if the label shows 100% wool, there may
still be problems.
Since the fabric list on suits usually refer only to the shell (and
ignore padding or ornamental threads), the label can only be used to
identify garments that definitely have shaatnez. Thus if the label
indicates that the suit (for example) can be good, take it to a
Shaatnez lab for testing. Most cities with at least a medium sized
Orthodox community have qualified Shaatnez testers. If the city has a
local Vaad Hakashrus they can usually refer you to a reliable tester.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.1.8: Dress: Are there any special dress rules or customs
for women?
Answer:
Traditionally, there are halachic rules and community customs that
lead to a particular pattern of dress for those that observe the
halacha regarding modesty. This is most typical among the Orthodox
segment of Judaism, but is occasionally found elsewhere. It is good to
keep these rules in mind if you visit traditional communities,
especially in Israel. These dress rules/customs include:
* Sleeves are typically covered as far as the elbow.
* The neckline does not expose any cleavage.
* Skirts are long enough to cover the knee when seated.
* Depending on the area, pants or slacks may be allowed; for
example, in many religious kibbutzim the women wear pants out of
habit, for the simple reason that they work in agricultural areas
or other activities where a skirt would be less modest. However,
this is the exception; when not performing these activities,
skirts are worn. Women not in such situations at all are
encouraged not to wear pants.
The problem with pants are two-fold: first, some communities still
consider them banned under the laws that prohibit cross-dressing.
The other is that any attire that shows the location of the croch
is considered immodest attire for women. If the problem is only
the latter, then perhaps a skirt or apron over pants would be
permitted. Different rabbis and communities follow different norms
* Married women cover their hair either completely, or with
approximately 2 finger widths showing of the bangs. As to
unmarried women, hair covering is not required, although there are
Sephardi customs that even unmarried women should "put their hair
up", so that it's not flying 'wildly' (but not necessary to cover
it). In some communities, particularly amongst Hassidim and
Sepharadic Jews (those from Arab countries), wearing a wig is NOT
sufficient head covering. In some Chassidic groups women wear a
hat over their wig. Amongst Sepharadic Jews, the wig is of no
relevance to this law, and the hat would have to be large enough
to cover all of their hair--making the wig pointless.
The origin of this law is murky--in one place the Talmud makes
this seem to be a rabbinically set modesty issue, in another it is
a scriptural reference. This too is followed by all but the most
modern edge of Orthdoxy (and even in their camp, most acknowledge
that they are violating the rule as set forth in the Talmud).
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.1.9: Dress: What is a Kittel?
Answer:
A kittel is a white robe worn in the synagogue on such major festivals
as Rosh Hashana and Yom Kippur. The rabbi wears it, as does the
cantor, the blower of the shofar, and male members of Ashkenazi
congregations. Before a Seder dinner in traditional households, the
leader of the Passover seder dons a kittel, and in Orthodox
communities the bridegroom wears it at his wedding. Pious Jews use the
kittel as a burial shroud.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.1.10: Dress: What is the large high ceremonial hat that
the Rabbi wears in the synagogue called?
Answer:
There isn't one. Many traditional Rabbis tend to wear fedoras, but
then, so do most of the congregation as part of formal Sabbath wear.
Some with more Chassidic leanings would wear a Hamburg, a felt hat
with a flatter brim, no pinches in the hat itself like you would find
on a fedora. Chassidim themselves tend to wear fur hats. Those
communities from Russia and eastern Poland wear a "spodik", a brown
(nearly black) fur hat that is taller than it is high. Those from
Hungary, Galicia and therabouts wear a "shtreiml", an almost disklike
hat whose center is felt surrounded by a brown mink ruff. But these
are worn by the entire community for the Sabbath, and aren't specific
to Rabbis.
At one point in time, during the 19th and early 20th century, cantors
-- the ones trained in the melodies and meanings of prayer -- tended
to wear high Cantorial Caps. They were actually elaborate versions of
the style of Yarmulka worn amongst Latvian Jews. (The plainer version
looked something like an old seargent's hat or cooks cap, but in
black.)
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.2.1: Sex and Purity: What's this I've heard about a hole
in a sheet?
Answer:
We don't know what you've heard, but what we've heard is that when it
comes time for three men to "witness" a woman's conversion [involving
nude immersion], what's commonly done is for the water's surface to be
covered with a thick, opaque sheet with a hole in it, just big enough
to let her head through while discreetly shielding the rest of her
body.
Anything else is probably just your warped imagination, and no, we
still have no idea of what you're thinking, but you should be ashamed
of yourself, just in case. And another thing, it's not true, so there!
Actually, there is an urban legend regarding what you think. As with
any urban legend, there is a spark of truth in it. Here are two
explanations:
* The myth derives from seeing Jews in religious neighborhoods
hanging their "talitot katan" out to dry. This poncho-like garment
is about two feet by four feet, has a fringe on each corner, and a
hole in the center for the wearer's head, and it looks somewhat
like a small sheet with a hole, and many people have vivid and
warped imaginations.
* There is such a practice, but it is based on a misreading of the
Kitzur Shulchan Aruch, a poor source for information on mainstream
halakhic opinion on sexual matters. Most consider the legend to be
an incorrect practice. Nevertheless, the practice does seem to
survive in some "fanatical" extremes of Orthodox Judaism, without
Rabbinic agreement.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.2.2: Sex and Purity: Can a Jewish man only uncover his
wife a hands-breadth?
Answer:
This "legend" is derived from a one of several conflicting
interpretations of what was said about Rabbi Eliezer ben Horkanos in
Nedarim 20a,b. It runs as follws:
"Ima Shalom [R. Eliezer's wife] was asked why her children were so
very good-looking. She told them " ` ... and when he speaks to
[Rashi: copulates with] me, he uncovers a handsbreadth and covers a
handsbreadth and he seems to be coerced by a demon."
The conflicting interpretations are as follows:
* Rashi (ad loc.). Handsbreadth: of her clothing. Seems to be
coerced by a demon: Comes upon her powerfully, as if a demon were
coercing him. However, some say that he covers himself completely
[and only uncovers as much of himself as necessary], as if he were
afraid of a demon.
* Ra"N [R. Nissim bar Ya`kov] (ad loc.). Handsbreadth: [citing
Berakhot 23B] a woman is permitted to uncover two handsbreadths
when she urinates. He uncovered only one handbreath, leaving the
second one covered. Seems to be driven by a demon: He would hurry
[through the act] like a man coerced by a demon, but would
[literally] speak to her during intercourse.
* Ro'Sh [R. Asher ben Ye`hiel] (ad loc). Handsbreadth: [An obscure
reason not easily figured out] or perhaps in order not to enjoy
direct body contact, as in [intercourse] through a sheet
(Yerushalmi Yebamot 1,1) [This reference to Rabbi Jose ben
Halafta's behavior, while he was levir to his brother's widow, may
be the origin of the urban legend about the "hole in the sheet"].
* Hameiri (ad loc). ...he should uncover a handsbreadth of her
clothing and cover that handsbreadth with his own ...
* Rambam (Hilkhot De`ot 5,4). ... he should speak to her and sport
with her a bit until she relaxes, and then couple with her
modestly and not brutally ...
Not much of a consensus, as you can see. Choose whatever
interpretation you like. Rashi's first explanation has the ring of
truth: It was R. Eliezer's way of building up sexual excitement by
foreplay. As supporting evidence, we continue to read the text: "I
(Ima Shalom) asked him `Why do you do this?' He aswered `So that I
should not look [with desire] at any other woman'".
Note that the Talmud in Ketubot 48 states that the proper way for a
man and woman to have sex is for both to be nude; in fact it goes on
to state that if one insists on wearing clothes during the act, that
can be considered grounds for divorce. This was later codified in the
Shulkhan Arukh (16th century), Even ha-Ezer 76:13
For a detailed and sensitive discussion of Jewish views towards sex
and sexuality, see "Does God Belong in the Bedroom?" by Rabbi Michael
Gold (published by JPS), and "Kosher Sex: A Recipe for Passion and
Intimacy" by Rabbi Shmuley Boteach (published by Doubleday).
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.2.3: Sex and Purity: What is a "mikveh"?
Answer:
A mikva or mikveh is a place used for ritual immersions. A proper
mikva contains a minimum of 40 SE'AH--about 191 U.S. gallons (Sorry,
but you'll have to do your own metric conversion.) of undrawn water.
In general, if there are more than 40 SE'AH, then the remainder of the
water may come from any source.
"Undrawn" means not filled by bucket or by metal pipes.
Natural lakes, whether or not fed by streams or rivers, fall into the
category of "undrawn waters." Many synagogues also provide indoor
mikvas.
Additional information may be found in [5]N. Lamm, A Hedge of Roses;
and I. Klein, A Guide to Jewish Religious Practice (Chapter 37).
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.2.4: Sex and Purity: What are Jewish hygene practices?
Answer:
While traditional Judaism has a number of practices that are hygenic,
there appears to be only one that is motivated by hygene. There is a
law called "machayim achronim" (water after [the meal]), a rule that
one must wash one's hands after eating. The claimed reason for this
law is that people tended to eat sodom salt with their food. [Our
common table salt, sodium chloride, was quite expensive. The Roman
army paid their soldiers in it! Thus the expression "worth his salt".]
Sodom salt, whatever it is, could injure the eye, so one should wash
one's hands after the meal to avoid blindness. Today, since we don't
use this kind of salt anymore, most do not feel the law is in
practice. Others still keep the rule, as there is an allusion to it in
the Torah.
However, other practices have hygenic effects:
* There are seven distinct prohibitions involved in eating
insects--they are less kosher than pork! People inspect their
vegetables very carefully to get rid of all of them. Some Jews
don't even eat brocolli or cauliflower because they are nearly
impossible to inspect.
* Right after you wake up, before doing anything else, you are
supposed to wash your hands because: (a) your hands could be
anywhere when you're asleep; and (b) sleep is a modicum of death,
and there is a state called "tum'ah" (untanslatable) which is
associated with death.
* You must wash your hands before eating bread, so most meals are
preceded with washing your hands. This is to get people used to
being un-tamei (different conjugation of tum'ah, still
untranslatable) when eating, which was necessary for eating from
sacrifices, or if a priest or levite wanted to eat from their
respective tithes. This washing is called "mayim rishonim", water
before [the meal], and was considered less stringent than the
post-meal washing (back when the latter was for health reasons).
In general, Jewish law sees health as a higher priority than
itself. (Barring three do-or-die commandments.)
The three hand washing laws, upon waking up and before and after
meals, had significant impact on survival during the Black Plague.
Jews faired much better than the rest of the population. To the
extent that it was taken as "evidence" that the plague was some
kind of Jewish conspiracy, leading some to set arson and murder.
* There are no sexual relations from the time menstruation begins
until a week after bleeding stops. Before resuming marital
relations, the wife immerses herself in a mikvah, a ritual bath.
Before going to the mikvah, she must be entirely clean, so that at
least in potential, nothing comes between her and the water. In
practice, this means soaking in a regular bathtub for roughly half
an hour, flossing, making sure her hair has no knots, and other
things.
* In many communities, men go to the mikvah the day before a
holiday, and often on every Friday. (Most only twice a year:
before Rosh haShanah, and before Yom Kippur.) Some immerse
themselves before prayers the morning after having sexual
relations. The preparations are less grueling, as these are only
custom, while the post-menstual immersion has a biblical source.
However, it still means that men in these communities bathed quite
often, as these things went before indoor plumbing.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.3.1: Writing: Why do some people write "G-d" with a
hyphen instead of an `o'?
Answer:
Based on the words in Deut. 12:3-4, the Rabbis deduced that it is
forbidden to erase the name of G-d from a written document. Since any
paper upon which G-d's name was written might be discarded and thus
"erased", the Rabbis forbade explicitly writing the name of G-d,
except in Holy Books, with provisions for the proper disposal of such
books.
According to Jewish Folklore, G-d has 70 names. However, only one of
these names is the ineffable name, which cannot be erased or
pronounced. Further, of the 70 names, seven may not be erased but they
can be pronounced on certain occasions (such as when reading the
Torah). The other names may be erased and pronounced, but still must
be treated with respect. The Talmud (Shevuot 35a-b) makes it clear
that this prohibition applies only to seven Biblical names of G-d and
not to other names or attributes of G-d, which may be freely written.
The prohibition was later codified by Maimonides (Mishneh Torah,
Yesodei HaTorah 6:1-2). The practice of writing "G-d" is supported in
Shut Achiezer, 3:32, end, where it is endorsed and accepted as the
prevailing custom. Rambam cites Deut. 12-03:04, which states "and you
shall destroy the names of pagan gods from their places. You shall not
do similarly to G-d your Lord." The intent of this is to create an
atmosphere of respect for G-d's name vs pagan gods names.
As a result of this, people acquired the habit of not writing the full
name down in the first place. Strictly speaking, this only applies to
Hebrew on a permanent medium, but many people are careful beyond the
minimum, and have applied it to non-Hebrew languages. Hence, "G-d".
One explanation is that using G-d is a reminder that anything which we
may say about G-d is necessarily metaphorical. Spelling out the Name
(even in a language other than Hebrew) would imply that one could
speak meaningfully (not just metaphorically) about G-d.
However, the Shach (Yoreh De'a 179:11) ruled that "God" spelled in a
foreign language does NOT have the status of a "shem" and thus may be
erased, lehatkhila. There is a story about Rav Soloveitchik (z"l)
intentionally writing GOD on the board while teaching a class and then
just as deliberately and intentionally erasing it, so as to
demonstrate by his own example that this was not a halakhically a
problem.
Conservative (ref:
[5]http://communities.msn.com/JudaismFAQs&naventryid=160) and Reform
practice is to use "God". However, even some who are not strict (or
even observant) in general will write "G-d", to emphasize that Jewish
conceptions of G-d are meant.
Note: There is one exception to the destruction of G-d's name. In
Numbers 6, the Suspected Wife Ceremony, a man who suspects his wife of
adultery (with witnesses seeing a forbidden seclusion) brings his wife
to the temple. The Priests test the women by pronouncing the horrible
Biblical curse. After reading the curse it is written on parchment and
dissolved in water (which the women drinks). If she is guilty she dies
and otherwise the couple gets their marriage back. Thus, G-d actually
allows the ineffable name to be dissolved in water that the women
drinks. As the Talmud notes: G-d allows the ineffable name to be
erased for the sake of bringing peace between a husband and wife.
Note that if you disagree with another poster's decision to omit or
include the hyphen, you should not publicly criticize or ridicule said
poster.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.3.2: Writing: Why do some Jews write "J-s-s" and
"Xianity?"
Answer:
Some Jews consider Jesus to have been an ordinary man and write his
name like that of any other man. Some question whether or not he even
existed, possibly being a myth borrowed from similar stories. Others
ascribe to him the status of a "deity worshipped by others," whose
name Jews should not pronounce. Many extend this ban to the written
form. Some write "Xianity" as a simple shorthand, like "Xmas," while
others prefer not to write "Christianity" lest it appear that they
consider Jesus to have been the Messiah.
Note that the shorthands "Xianity" and "Xmas" do not derive from
attempting to "blot out" the Jesus's name; rather, they arose because
the first letter of the Christ in greek (Christos) is a Chi, which
looks like an "X". In fact, the shorthand is used by many Christians.
The possible halachic problem with writing Christ derives from the
fact that "christos" is the Greek word for Messiah/moshiach. Hence
some argue that writing the name Christ in full tacitly acknowledges
(G-d forbid) that Jesus was the Messiah.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.3.3: Writing: Why are somethings written in Hebrew, and
others in Aramaic?
Answer:
Aramaic was the Jewish vernacular from the second Temple period until
well after the closing of the Talmud (700 CE). That period includes
the last remnant of the Sanhedrin in Yavneh. Thus, documents during
this time are in Aramaic. According to tradition, our affiliation with
Aramaic dates back to Abraham, who was a native of Aram Naharaim (note
the name).
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.4.1: Practices Towards Others: Does Judaism permit
slavery?
Answer:
There are really two questions here:
Question 1: Does Halacha Permit Jews to Own Slaves?
First, note that "Slavery" in the Torah generally refers to temporary
indentured servitude to one's creditor. Such slavery was permitted
under Jewish law. However, the treatment of Jews towards their slaves
was much more humane than that of the surrounding culture, for a key
element of Judaism is to remember that Jews were once slaves in Egypt
(in fact, this is the central theme of the holiday of Pesach).
In Judaism, the slave was protected. Exodus 21:2-11 defines the rights
of the servant. Quoting from the Hertz Penatateuch and Haftorahs:
Slavery, as permitted by the Torah was quite different from Greek
and Roman Slavery, or even the cruel system in some modern
countries down to our own times. In Hebrew law, the slave was not a
thing, but a human being; he was not the chattel of a master who
had unlimited power over him. In the Hebrew language, there is only
one word for slave and servant. Brutal treatment of any slave,
whether Hebrew or heathen, secures his immediate liberty.
Jewish law required that a slave could go free in the seventh year of
service (Exodus 21:2), although his family would not be freed;
although if he came into servitude with a wife, that wife would also
be freed. The slave could, however, indicate that they perferred
bondage to freedom. Every fiftieth year (the "Jubilee"), the slaves
with their families would be emancipated, and property (except house
property in a walled city) would revert to its original owner. (Lev
XXV:8-55).
In Judaism, there is also the concept of an "Eved Canani", a
non-Jewish slave, who is the property of a Jew, as is discussed in
Vayikrah 25:46. This concept of slavery is nothing like slavery that
occurred in America to the Negroes. The slaves were not kidnapped, but
rather were purchased from themselves; i.e., they were offered a sum
of money, or guaranteed shelter and food, in exchange for becoming
slaves. The obligation to treat your slave humanely applies to both
Jewish and non-Jewish slave, as does the obligation to make sure they
have all necessary comforts, even at the expense of their master's own
comfort (e.g., if there are not enough pillows for all, the master
must provide his slaves with pillows before himself).
Slavery is clearly discussed in the Torah, especially in reference to
Canaan, who was cursed by his grandfather Noach to be destined to be
the slaves to the rest of mankind, as stated and repeated a number of
times in Beraishis 9:25-27.
Is slavery moral? We live in a society where same sex marriages,
partial-birth abortions, and mercy killings are considered moral by
many--and perhaps even the majority--of our society. Additionally, it
is considered "sport" to watch two men get together in a ring, and
attempt to injure each other, and we roar in approval when one has
managed to draw blood from the other and knock him unconscious. We
must realize that what we consider moral or immoral is the sum total
of the society in which we live. In Judaism, we've been blessed with
the Torah, which tells us very clearly what is moral and immoral, and
directs us to elevate ourselves above our society and accept the
Torah's definition of morality. When the Torah says that theft is
forbidden, this is not because society has determined that theft is
forbidden, but because G-d is telling us so. Hence, it is forbidden to
steal even in situations that society would not necessarily consider
it theft, such as pirating software from large corporations.
Additionally, when the Torah tells us that there is a Mitzvah to
eradicate Amalek (evil) from the face of the earth (Shemos 17:14-16,
and Devarim 25:17-19), as difficult as it is for us to swallow this,
we must realize that this is the moral thing to do. This means, that
when a Jewish doctor was summoned to save little Adolf Shicklegruber's
life when he was an infant (later known as Adolf Hitler), rather than
save his life, he should have smothered him to death (assuming that he
knew that he is from Amalek). Of course, everyone there would have
been horrified--but can you imagine how much less the world would have
suffered had he realized that there is a divine code of morality that
is higher than his own understanding and society's definition of what
is moral and immoral! Similarly, when we find the concept of slavery
in the Torah, while we certainly may and should question and try to
understand, it must be with the realization that our Torah is actually
the only code of morals that we have that we can be certain is correct
(based on our beliefs), and we must accept the Torah whether it fits
into our own preconception of what is moral and what is not.
Question 2: Did Jews own Slaves?
It is true that some Jews in the Southern U.S. before the Civil War
did own slaves (alas), and there were intense antebellum debates on
the subject; for example, Rabbi Morris Raphall of Congregation B'nai
Jeshurun in New York, preached a sermon in 1861 defending slavery,
while David Einhorn of Baltimore, a committed abolitionist, was forced
to flee town. Additionally, recent research [FABER, ELI : Jews,
Slaves, and the Slave Trade: Setting the Record Straight. ; New York
University Press, (1998)].suggests that Jews in the Caribbean held
slaves in numbers approximately similar to non-Jews of equivalent
socio-economic strata. However, Jewish Law prohibts treating a slave
like chattel and abusing him or her.
A good site with information on Jewish participation in the Civil War
is [5]http://www.jewish-history.com/civilwar.htm
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.4.2: Practices Towards Others: What does "eye for an
eye" mean?
Answer:
The Written Law does, in Exodus 21:24 demand an "eye for an eye"
(Exodus 21:24). However, the Oral Law explains that the verse must be
understood as requiring monetary compensation: the value of an eye is
what must be paid.
Note that the Written Law does NOT imply "lex talionis" - gouging out
the perpetrator's eye as retaliatory punishment. Gandhi and many
others misunderstood this verse.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.4.3: Practices Towards Others: Is it permitted for a Jew
to sell Christian objects?
Answer:
Most rishonim (medieval halachic authorities) considered Christianity
to be avodah zarah. A notable exception were the Tosafists. They felt
that the trinity is shutfus (assigning partners to G-d). That the
Father is the Creater, and identiable with the Jewish G-d, and the
other persons of the trinity are minor deities that mediate. The
practical distinction is that while Jews are prohibited from believing
in shutfus, it is permitted to non-Jews under the covenant of Noah.
The Tosafists are a major force in Ashkenazic ruling. On their ruling,
many Orthodox Jews who work in jewelery sell crosses and crucafixes. A
necessary factor is the assumption that the overwhelming majority of
customers will be people who aren't Jewish (in the sense of
peoplehood, not just religion). Others do not rule like the Tosafists.
Another issue is whether the Tosafists' statement about the
Catholicism of their day applies to any / some / most of the plurality
of Christianities that exist today. For a pragmatic ruling, it's
something you'd need to discuss with a rabbi.
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.6.1: Death and Burial: Is it true that someone with
tattoos cannot be buried in a Jewish cemetery?
Answer:
While tattooing is against Jewish law, there is also a principle that
a person can repent up until the moment of death. The assumption is
that the person did teshuva (repented) before they died, and so there
should be no problem burying them in a Jewish cemetery. Of course, it
is probably appropriate to CYLAR* (appropriate rabbi) as well as
CYLAFD* (appropriate funeral director). There is a story that relates
to this (courtesy Micha Berger):
There was a ba'al teshuvah (returnee to Orthodoxy) who went to the
mikvah on erev Yom Kippur. Before discovering Judaism, he got a
tatoo on his upper arm. By the time of the story he was learning in
a yeshiva and quite embarassed of it. An older man saw how this
teen was standing with that arm toward the wall. And then "just
happened" to throw his towel over that shoulder. In short,
squiriming around to make the tatoo less noticable. The man walked
over to the boy and showed him his arm. "See I too have a tatoo. I
wear it with pride. It reminds me where I have been, and how far I
have come."
Note that deliberate tattooing is against Jewish law: "Do not lacerate
your flesh for the dead, do not tattoo yourselves." (Lev. 19:28).
Cutting of the flesh and tattooing was associated with idolatrous
usages among the Canaanites. Many traditional mortuaries and
cemeteries will not officiate at a funeral of one who is tattooed.
However, since this practice has become more and more common, even
among Jews, the policies may become more relaxed with time. If you
intend to be interred in a traditional Jewish cemetery, you should
contact them to verify their policies.
Do remember: today, tattoos are in; tomorrow they might not be. And
though there are ways to remove them, why risk the potential cost and
pain? Let the beauty of your soul be the example people will see and
not a "heart with Mom" inside. And take the money you would have spent
on this body art and give it to a noble cause.
*[CYL = "Consult your local"]
------------------------------------------------------------
Subject: Question 11.6.2: Death and Burial: I've heard about a custom of
putting stones on the grave. Do you know where this custom
originated?
Answer:
Originally, there were no engraved tombstones like we have today.
Originally, tombs were marked with a simple cairn, a simple pile of
stones. This meant that wind and rain would cause the tomb marker to
wear down. Each visitor would therefore add to the pile again, to show
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